Section 52 of the Transfer of Property Act - Kya Logic Hai?

I'm still scratching my head over Section 52 of the TPA. According to it, when a party doesn't have an heir, the property goes to the government. But then there's this doctrine of 'escheat', which is all about the property devolving to the state or crown (in this case, the Indian government). Now, what's the logic behind Section 52? Is it like, the government is the last resort or something? But what if there's a will or a deed that specifies a different heir? Shouldn't that take precedence? I know I've seen it mentioned somewhere in the commentary, but for the life of me, I just can't get it through my head. Anyone else struggling with this or am I just being too lazy?