Patanjali vs Nike: The Puzzle of 'Novelty'
ipr clat_ug beginner concept_confusionMain to confuse ho gaya hoon... Section 3(1)(a) IPC mein likha hai ki "patent" kisi aise kaam ke liye hai jo koi dusra abhi tak nahi kar sakta hai (novelty). Lekin fir, patents ke rules mein kaha jata hai ki agar koi cheez kam se kam 35 years pehle discover ki gayi hai, toh uske liye patent mil sakta hai. Aur yeh 'prior art' ka koi connection nahi hai? Toh yeh kehna ho sakta hai ki agar koi cheez 35 years pehle discover hui hai, to iski novelty to nahi rehti, phir iske liye patent kyun mil sakta hai?
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