Liability for Damage to Property in Nuisance vs Trespass

Bhai, I'm stuck with this concept of damages in nuisance. When the defendant intentionally causes damage to the neighbour's property, we say it's trespass, riight? Then why do some texts say it's nuisance? I read in some textbook that in nuisance, the claim for damages is for loss of use/value of the property, not just the actual damage. Example, someone puts up a huge factory near my house and I can't even open my windows, I can claim for the loss of use, not just the actual damage to my property. But if someone trespasses into my house and breaks something, I can just claim for the actual damage, isn't it? Where's the confusion?