Easement by Adverse Possession - Burdened or Free Property?

In TPA, an easement can be acquired through adverse possession. But when the same is exercised, does the property where the easement is exercised get burdened or is the burden on the original property? Option 1 - When someone exercises an easement over a property, that property becomes burdened with the easement, even if its owner didn't agree to it. Option 2 - The property from where the easement is exercised is burdened with it. Think, which is correct and why? It would help if someone could explain this with a case reference, like Sholapur Spg. & Mfg. Co. Ltd. v. Dattatray.